Why is it that having stronger intermolecular forces (IMF) would mean a greater boiling and melting point?
Reading up online what I understood is that having stronger IMF would mean that at a given temperature, the potential energy is more negative than a weaker IMF substance. So when heating it up, more energy would be required to increase the PE to the point where melting/boiling can occur.
However, I was thinking if A has stronger IMF than B, then at a given temperature their average KE is the same but the PE of A is more negative than B. So, when heating both of them, each joule of energy would distribute evenly between the KE and the PE so for A there would be a smaller temperature change than B. But it doesn't tell me why A would have a greater melting/boiling point than B. I would only understand why A would have a greater specific molar capacity and not why a greater BP.
Can someone explain this to me? Thanks