Hi everyone,
I'm trying to study for my bioinorganic class, and I'm struggling with an example we were given in class.
My prof was giving us an example, comparing reduction of Fe(H
2O)
63+ with reduction of Fe(CN)
6-3.
So I was looking at the first one, Fe(H
2O)
6+3 + e
- Fe(H
2O)
62+ with a E° of 0.77 V
He wrote that the +3 species is low spin (it's d
5 with two of the t
2g orbitals spin paired, and the remaining one unpaired) and the +2 species is high spin.
So I'm confused. I thought that water was generally considered a weak ish field ligand, so therefore a smaller Δoct and it should be high spin instead, with one electron in each orbital (t
2g and e
g). Am I wrong in thinking this? Is it because by making it low spin, it avoids populating the higher energy orbitals?
The +2 species he says is high spin, which makes sense to me based on the ligand type. But since this is d
6 if it
was low spin, you would have a diamagnetic species with the t
2g level filled with spin-paired electrons, and very stable. I would think this would be more favorable, and so it would "want" to be low spin, not high spin as he says.
I've been over my inorganic text and I just can't figure out why it isn't obeying the "trends" I read. Thank you so much for any help in advance!