Every time someone talks about IR vs Raman, I get a little confused. Because, what is really the difference between the two techniques?. The transitions follow different selection rules, so clearly there is something fundamentally different between the transitions. However, both involve absorbing electromagnetic radiation to excite a molecule into an excited vibrational level.
My understanding right now is this: The fundamental difference between IR and Raman spectroscopy is that the molecules are excited into higher vibrational modes in different ways - even though both ways involve electromagnetic radiation. For a vibrational mode to absorb radiation, either **a)** the molecule's dipole moment needs to change during the vibration, or **b)** the molecule's polarizability needs to change during the vibration. We call the first situation IR spectroscopy, while we call the second situation Raman spectroscopy.
But here's another thing. For IR measurements we use infrared radiation, while we usually use visible light for Raman measurements. During (normal) Raman measurements, we excite to some virtual vibrational state, while during IR absorption measurements, we do not excite to virtual states. Considering that we use higher energy light during Raman measurements, this makes sense, but is this a necessary condition for it to be called Raman? Could we do Raman with IR lasers? In the Rayleigh equation, we see that the intensity of the Raman signal is proportional to the inverse of the wavelength to the 4th power, and think a Professor once said that this is the reason why we use lower wavelengths: to obtain much more Raman signal. So the fact that we excite to virtual states is just a consequence of us using lower wavelengths to get a higher Raman signal?
I'm sorry for a long and perhaps confusing question, but I have been thinking about this for some time now, and I thought I's just ask.