I have a doubt regarding certain problems which require you to find the accelerating potential that must be imparted to a proton beam to give it to an effective wavelength of "some value" eg 0.005nm.
I have been taught two formulas from different sources to solve this problem, each giving two solutions. Can anyone please give tell me which of these is correct?
1) x = h / (root of 2meV) where 'h' is planck's constant, 'm' is the mass of the particle, 'e' is the charge and 'V' is the potential difference.
2) x = root of (150/V) amstrong units ,where 'x' is the wavelength and 'V' is the potential difference.
Here is the derivation for the above two formulas:
1) E = P
2/2m
P = root of (2mE)
x = h/p
x = h/root of (2mE)
x = h/root of (2meV) [by the way is 'V' here in electrostatic units or in couloumbs. My teacher said voltage in electrostatic unit * 1/3 * 10
-2 = V in couloumbs.Is that correct?
]
2) E=Ve
Therefore, 1/2mv
2 = Ve
v
2 = 2Ve/m
v = root of (2Ve/m)
mv = m * root (2Ve/m) [multiplying by 'm' on both sides]
mv = root of (2Vem)
x = h/mv = h/ root of (2Vem)
x = root of (h
2/2Vem)
Substituting values of h, m and e,
x = root of (150/V) * 10
-10m
x = root of (150/V) Amstrong
Can someone please guide me?