The idea that the reverse reaction is effected in the same way is very helpful, but I still run into a conceptual dilemma.
Perhaps it is just times when the reaction would not proceed at all without a catlyst (a problem with an exponential factor of zero). At times when the activation energy cannot be surmounted by any molecules, and a catalyst overcomes this activation energy, the catalyst has now allowed the reaction to move forward, where previously it would be unable to.
There are products being created here. Where previously there were none. Granted, the activation energy is lowered in the reverse direction as well, but still it seems as if the equilibrium constant would now be higher, because surely it could not be zero.
But, by the logic of the above, the reverse reaction's activation energy would be lowered, and thus when equilibrium was reached, the concentrations would be 100% reactants and 0% products, since thats what it was before the catalyst was introduced. But the concept of dynamic equilibrium seems to break down here. How can you have dynamic equilibrium with 0 products?
Thanks for the help so far!