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Topic: K=1 in equilibrium, why?  (Read 2717 times)

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Offline Shadow

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K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« on: October 11, 2013, 01:38:51 PM »
Why do we say that a reaction obtained equilibrium when it's ΔG° is equal to 0, meaning that Keq has to be 1? A reaction can reach equilibrium when its K is e.g. 1*10-5, and in this situation ΔG° is not zero.
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Offline Corribus

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Re: K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« Reply #1 on: October 11, 2013, 04:12:15 PM »
Quote from: Shadow on October 11, 2013, 01:38:51 PM
Why do we say that a reaction obtained equilibrium when it's ΔG° is equal to 0, meaning that Keq has to be 1? A
We don't say this, because it isn't correct.
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Offline Babcock_Hall

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Re: K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« Reply #2 on: October 11, 2013, 04:45:42 PM »
I think you may be confusing ΔG with ΔG°.
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Offline Shadow

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Re: K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« Reply #3 on: October 12, 2013, 03:44:30 AM »
Anyway, if ΔG=0, K hasn't to be 1, right?
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Offline Corribus

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Re: K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« Reply #4 on: October 12, 2013, 09:51:34 AM »
Right. K has no causal relationship with ΔG.
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What men are poets who can speak of Jupiter if he were like a man, but if he is an immense spinning sphere of methane and ammonia must be silent?  - Richard P. Feynman

Offline Babcock_Hall

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Re: K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« Reply #5 on: October 12, 2013, 10:21:56 AM »
When ΔG = 0, chemical equilibrium has been reached.
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Offline curiouscat

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Re: K=1 in equilibrium, why?
« Reply #6 on: October 12, 2013, 10:48:21 AM »
..and when ΔG° = 0, K = 1.
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