Hi,
I know this topic has been discussed in this forum but I could not find the answer that helps untangle my confusion.
My understanding is that primary amine is less nucleophilic than a secondary amine (let us say we are discussing Me-NH2 v.s. Me-NH-Me), while tertriary ((CH3)3N) would be the least nucleophilic due to hindrance while it is the strongest base (the +I effect of alkyl groups raises the energy of the lone pairs of electrons thus elevating the basicity). Although I have read articles debating that the secondary amine is the stronger base due to better solvation as tertiary amine does not allow for proper solvation simply due to hindrance.
Can someone confirm my train of thought?
Thanks in advance,
Nescafe.