If the integral of Ψ2 is already equal to 1, then it's telling you the wavefunction is already normalized. That said, since you don't really have a unit for x, it is customary to leave a0 as a constant and express the normalization factor in terms of a0 (and, often, Z, the nuclear core charge, for hydrogenic wavefunctions). This way the normalization factor holds regardless of the length unit you choose to adopt. In other words, the fact that N is nearly equal to one when you substitute in for the Bohr radius (in Angstroms) is only coincidental. If you expressed it in, say, femtofurlongs or some such, this probably wouldn't happen.
For the second one, when you express your wavefunction, you should include your normalization factor that you are solving for (N). That's to start. Next, you need to realize that when you integrate in polar coordinates over all space, you don't just formulate the integral as dr dΦ dΘ, because this isn't an infinitesimal volume element in polar coordinates. There is an extra value of r2 and sin(θ) that have to be added to the integrand. This is important!!! To see why, you need to practice converting between Cartesian and polar coordinate systems. This is what the hint is referring to. Finally, yes you can separate the variables in this case, which makes solving the integral much easier.