I recently failed an oral swab drug test for cocaine without having ever used it. The test was confirmed with gas chromatography, and those results were given to me on a printout from LabCorp. The printout lists a positive result for cocaine itself at a level of 43ng/ml and a negative result for benzoylecgonine at zero ng/ml (it doesn't just say negative as-in below the cutoff of 20ng/ml, it actually says zero ng/ml.)
Question: How can one test positive for cocaine but have zero of the primary metabolite present? Is that really as weird as it seems to me? Does the lack of the metabolite mean that my sample was contaminated by someone who handled it, like in the case of someone having cocaine on their hands? What are the possible explanations for this test result?
I've read elsewhere that tonic water can cause false positives for cocaine and I drink the stuff all day, but given the gas chromatography confirmation it is impossible for the tonic water to be the cause, correct?
Right now I'm looking at losing access to my medication because of this test result. My doctor did order a hair test, stating that I "might" be able to stay if I pass that test but I don't expect the results for at least a week and this is keeping me up nights in the meantime. I sure hope I pass the hair test, and that my constant ingestion of tonic water doesn't interfere with the results but I'm very concerned about the whole situation.
Does anyone have any thoughts, especially on the original strange test result?